Class A has a public method f, and another class B is publicly derived
from A. The derived class B has also the same function but with
different arguments.

Question: In the scope of class B, is the function f overloaded? (yes/
no)


class A
{
public: int f(int x);
}

class B: public A
{
public: int f(int x, float y);
}

On 2008-02-08 04:09:26 -0500, ambarish.mitra@gmail.com said:

> Class A has a public method f, and another class B is publicly derived
> from A. The derived class B has also the same function but with
> different arguments.
>
> Question: In the scope of class B, is the function f overloaded? (yes/
> no)
>
>
> class A
> {
> public: int f(int x);
> }
>
> class B: public A
> {
> public: int f(int x, float y);
> }

To see if it is overloaded or not, why not try to write some code to test it?

More specifically, try invoking f(1) and f(1,1.) on an B object.

--

// kira

On Feb 8, 6:09am, ambarish.mi...@gmail.com wrote:
> Class A has a public method f, and another class B is publicly derived
> from A. The derived class B has also the same function but with
> different arguments.
>
> Question: In the scope of class B, is the function f overloaded? (yes/
> no)
>
> class A
> {
> public: int f(int x);
>
> }
>
> class B: public A
> {
> public: int f(int x, float y);
>
>
>
> }- Hide quoted text -
>
> - Show quoted text -

Hi.

In this case it's not an overload because the implementation in B
hides the implementation in A. Basically, C++ lookup rules will try to
find the symbol in class B. Since it'll find it, class A won't be
looked up.


Leandro Melo